Here is the "o" between (I - K) and (I - K)^(-1) the same as dot product? Otherwise, if it's just a random operator, is it still going to preserve the distributive law?
Here is the "o" between (I - K) and (I - K)^(-1) the same as dot product? Otherwise, if it's just a random operator, is it still going to preserve the distributive law?