Just to make sure I understand: f(x)/p1(x) would give us a lower variance estimator than f(x)/p2(x)?
The way I'm visualizing it in terms of the provided image is that f(x)/p1(x) would graph to a "flatter" line than f(x)/p2(x), which would be reflected in the variance of the estimator.
Just to make sure I understand: f(x)/p1(x) would give us a lower variance estimator than f(x)/p2(x)?
The way I'm visualizing it in terms of the provided image is that f(x)/p1(x) would graph to a "flatter" line than f(x)/p2(x), which would be reflected in the variance of the estimator.